1 Thess 4 ≠ Pre-Trib Rapture
The focus and priority of this post is not the timing of rapture. Rather, my emphasis is biblical literacy, accurate hermeneutics (methodology), and faithfulness to God's Word. At the end of the day, what determines the meaning of these passages? Well, it begins with what “meaning” is! To keep matters simple, “meaning” is authorial intent, grounded in the literary (or immediate) context, review revealed in the text’s historical and grammatical context. (Contact me for some books, resources, and biblical basis for such a view)
I urge readers to read 1 Thessalonians 4:14-17 plainly. Don't read into the text. Avoid confirmation bias. (I am also not the first to write about this)
What this passage affirms:
Honestly, this passage is straightforward:
Christians who are (physically) alive will not precede the dead (4:15)
Christ will return from heaven with a cry of command (4:16)
And with the voice of an archangel and a trumpet of God (4:16)
All believers will be gathered (or raptured) to Christ (dead first, then those alive) in the clouds in the air (4:16-17)
“And so, we will always be with the Lord.” (4:17)
What the passage does not affirm or mention:
The timing of Christ's return in relationship to the tribulation or even the millennium.
The tribulation
The millennium
A pause or stoppage " in the air" (or in the clouds)
The trumpet as one of the trumpets in Revelation.
Pancakes, Tesla's, America
Jewish marriage (as an analogy)
Does 1 Thess 4 teach pre-tribulation rapture?
No, it does not. Paul does not say anything about that topic. In fact, the point of 1 Thessalonians 4 is to provide hope and to encourage/exhort the church (4:13; 4:18; 5:6-10). This is clear when one diagrams the Greek text. For some people, please buy an exegetical commentary.
(Off-Topic) Ok, What about Matthew 24?
Those who propose a pre-tribulation rapture usually combine at few main texts. The two main ones are 1 Thessalonians 4 and Matthew 24. So, does Matthew 24:37-41 (cf. Lk 17:34-35) teach this idea?
No. All the text affirms is that, as in the days of Noah (24:37), one will be taken and one will be left (24:40-41) during the coming of the son of man (24:39). What about the rest? They will be swept away (24:39). From the parallel in Luke 17, those who are swept away are taken to judgement (hell) (Lk 17:37).
Simply put, there is nothing indicating the timing of the millennium or tribulation.
But…Could pre-tribulation rapture be true?
Sure, there's a possibility that pre-tribulation rapture is true and will occur. But it is only a low possibility at best! There isn’t one clear text that details this notion—and that really bothers me (and everyone who believe it). The entire concept isn't clear from Scripture not is it logically deductible from a systematic understanding of the relevant texts! (Fyi, the Jewish marriage analogy could apply to a lot of different things. Furthermore, there's a clear reason that the whole wedding system isn't clearly stated in Scripture. All to say, using the Jewish wedding analogy to justify a pre-tribulation rapture is faulty methodology. Its actually not a grammatical-historical reading, but a loose historical-critical method.)
If we, as Christians, hold to the perspicuity of scripture, that the emphasis is on the purposed (intended) clarity of Scripture, we should be very careful in holding to pre-tribulation rapture, especially from 1 Thessalonians 4 or Matthew 24.
I am very weary of pastors, ministers, and Christians who are die hard and gung-ho on pre-tribulation rapture when their argument is based on 1 Thessalonians 4 or Matthew 24. Why? Because I fear eisegesis, reading into the text—instead of allowing the text (and it’s God-ordained author) to speak for itself. If we read into passages like these, what are the chances of reading into other passages and missing the meaning? Sure, this isn’t a salvation issue…but hey, teachers are judged stricter (cf. Jas 3:1). So we really need to be careful here.
Conclusion
I would love pre-tribulation rapture to be true. Who wants to see widespread evil and suffering, particularly for our faith? By the way, clearly no Christians have undergone, or are undergoing persecution for Christ. A Chinese or Middle Eastern Christian likely sees his/her life under persecution as the tribulation. Anyways, are there arguments for pre-tribulation rapture? Sure. But that’s besides the point (I have rebuttals for most arguments but they will not be explored here).
Again, my utmost concern is to be faithful to the text — God's word — and to interpret God's word rightly according to the methods that God has given us through his word. And from an accurate understanding of God's word, I desire to live faithfully unto God through His word and the power of the spirit. And if I'm not faithful it interpreting the text, rather, inserting my own opinions and wishful thinking, what are the chances that I'm unfaithful in other areas of life?